When an individual or household incime has been replaced by a swap value. either post 2010 or using the 1975-2010 replacement values, would I be correct in assuming that the various weights, for households, inctot, earnwt and so forth, unchanged? That is to say, that income weights are not swapped with the incomes they represent?
Yes, you are correct about this detail. Even when using the swap values the use of the sampling weights remains the same.