I am looking at the reporting of property insurance costs (propinsr) for owner occupied households in the annual ACS from 2001 to present. There is a notable jump in households coded as 1 (which I interpret as not having property insurance) between the 2007 and 2008 ACS. The survey question does not seem to be posed differently between years. This is true for both households that report having a mortgage and not. I understand that that rate may have increased during that period but it remains elevated through the present. (Also the American Housing Survey which has a direct question about whether the household buys property insurance, does not show a similar jump.)
I am trying to understand if there is something that has changed in the data between those years. The editing procedures say that there were changes in allocation of this variable between 2007 and 2008, but even if I look at unallocated responses only, I still see this jump. (Also prior to 2008 if you look unallocated responses for those who reported having a mortgage, everyone reports property insurance, which is what I would expect.)